2026 Actual ASHRM CPHRM Dumps, Updated Exam Questions for Guaranteed Pass

CPHRM free sample questions and answers

ASHRM CPHRM practice quiz with correct answers for search indexing.

1. Question 1

   Which of the following best describes the appropriate scope of a risk manager's involvement in community disaster preparedness?

   AAnalyze liability risks arising from patient harm sustained due to strained or inadequate resources during a mass-casualty event.
   

   BIncorporate emergency management into a comprehensive enterprise risk management plan designed to conserve and protect organizational assets.
   

   CQuantify risk exposures associated with implementing the disaster plan.
   

   DCalculate the value of human resources, equipment, and supplies consumed, with reimbursement to be obtained from FEMA.
   

   Correct answer: B

   According to Health Care Risk Management standards endorsed by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, a risk manager's role in community disaster preparedness extends beyond narrow liability analysis. The appropriate scope involves integration of emergency management into the organization's broader enterprise risk management framework.

   Enterprise risk management ERM is a structured, organization-wide approach to identifying, assessing, and managing risks that may affect strategic objectives, operations, financial stability, and reputation. Disaster preparedness is a critical operational risk that must be aligned with governance, compliance, continuity planning, and asset protection strategies. By incorporating emergency management into ERM, the risk manager ensures coordination across clinical services, facilities, supply chain, communications, and leadership structures.

   Option A focuses only on post-event liability. Option C limits involvement to quantification without strategic integration. Option D addresses reimbursement processes rather than preparedness strategy.

   Health Care Operations objectives emphasize collaboration with emergency management teams, regulatory compliance with preparedness standards, and resilience planning to protect patients, staff, and assets. Therefore, integrating emergency management into a comprehensive enterprise risk management plan best defines the risk manager's appropriate scope of involvement.

   
   

2. Question 2

   Which type of information was associated with the former HIPDB (now within NPDB) but not the original NPDB focus?

   AFraud/abuse-related actions and exclusions involving providers/suppliers (HIPDB purpose)
   

   BRestaurant health inspections
   

   CPublic voter registration files
   

   DSchool disciplinary actions
   

   Correct answer: A

   The HIPDB was established to help combat healthcare fraud and abuse, while the NPDB historically focused on practitioner competence and professional conduct (including items like malpractice payments and certain adverse actions). HRSA explains that HIPDB is no longer separate and that its information is now collected and disclosed through the NPDB following the 2013 merger. For risk managers, the objective is to ensure credentialing, contracting, and compliance teams understand the expanded scope and proper use: querying supports safer hiring/privileging decisions and reduces negligent credentialing risk, while reporting supports system integrity. Organizations must also ensure due process and correct categorization of reportable events to avoid wrongful reporting exposure.

   
   

3. Question 3

   If no specific OSHA standard applies to a given potential health hazard, then

   AOSHA has no authority to govern the hazard.
   

   BOSHA has the authority to govern the hazard under the general duty clause.
   

   Cthe appropriate state agency must consult with OSHA in governance of the hazard.
   

   Dthe appropriate state agency may govern the hazard without OSHA consultation.
   

   Correct answer: B

   According to Health Care Risk Management standards outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, the Occupational Safety and Health Act includes a provision known as the General Duty Clause. This clause requires employers to furnish a workplace free from recognized hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm, even when no specific OSHA standard addresses the hazard.

   The General Duty Clause grants OSHA authority to cite employers for unsafe conditions not explicitly covered by a detailed regulation. To issue a citation under this clause, OSHA must demonstrate that a recognized hazard exists, that the hazard poses a risk of serious harm, and that feasible methods exist to correct or mitigate the hazard.

   Therefore, OSHA retains enforcement authority even in the absence of a specific standard. The agency's jurisdiction does not disappear simply because no detailed regulation addresses the particular risk.

   Legal and regulatory objectives in healthcare risk management emphasize maintaining compliance with federal occupational safety laws and proactively identifying workplace hazards. Accordingly, OSHA may govern the hazard under the General Duty Clause when no specific standard applies.

   
   

4. Question 4

   Supervisors who conduct job interviews may ask which of the following questions?

   AAre you currently taking a prescription medication?
   

   BDo you plan to have children?
   

   CCan you meet the organization's attendance requirement?
   

   DAre you a citizen of the United States?
   

   Correct answer: C

   Under Health Care Risk Management standards aligned with ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, employment interview questions must comply with federal and state anti-discrimination laws, including the Americans with Disabilities Act ADA, Title VII of the Civil Rights Act, the Pregnancy Discrimination Act, and the Immigration Reform and Control Act.

   Questions about prescription medications may violate ADA provisions by eliciting information about potential disabilities prior to a conditional offer of employment. Asking whether a candidate plans to have children may constitute unlawful discrimination based on sex or family status. Inquiring directly about citizenship may violate federal employment eligibility standards; employers may instead ask whether the applicant is legally authorized to work in the United States.

   In contrast, asking whether a candidate can meet the organization's attendance requirements is permissible because it relates directly to essential job functions and business necessity. Employers may inquire about the ability to perform job-related duties, provided questions are applied consistently to all applicants and are not designed to screen out protected classes.

   Legal and regulatory objectives emphasize nondiscriminatory hiring practices and adherence to equal employment laws. Therefore, questions regarding attendance requirements are appropriate in a job interview setting.

   
   

5. Question 5

   A 78-year-old patient in the ICU is unable to speak or swallow. The physician states that she is terminally ill and believes she lacks decision-making capacity. As such, he has deferred to her properly executed advance directive that clearly outlines her wishes for no life-prolonging treatment. The patient's three sons know of the directive, but insist that a PEG tube be placed to assist with feeding. The physician is opposed to placing the tube. The nurse calls the risk manager for advice. Which of the following should the risk manager advise?

   AThe patient has the right to autonomy, and the advance directive is proper; support the physician.
   

   BThe family will outlive the patient, and they have the right to sue; support the family.
   

   CMore facts are needed; decision making capacity must be determined before moving forward.
   

   DMore facts are needed; request an ethics consultation.
   

   Correct answer: A

   Under Health Care Risk Management principles recognized by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, a properly executed advance directive carries legal authority when a patient lacks decision-making capacity. The physician has assessed that the patient is terminally ill and lacks capacity, triggering activation of the advance directive. If the directive clearly states refusal of life-prolonging treatment, including artificial nutrition and hydration, those wishes must be honored in accordance with state law and the Patient Self-Determination Act framework.

   Patient autonomy is a foundational ethical and legal principle in health care. Once capacity is lost, previously expressed wishes through a valid advance directive govern care decisions. Family members do not have authority to override a valid directive unless legal defects or ambiguity exist. Their disagreement does not negate the patient's documented preferences.

   Although ethics consultation can be helpful in managing conflict, the directive here is described as properly executed and clear. Additional determination of capacity is unnecessary because the physician has already made that assessment.

   Risk management objectives emphasize compliance with advance directive statutes, respect for patient autonomy, and reduction of liability through adherence to documented patient wishes. Therefore, the appropriate advice is to support the physician in honoring the advance directive.