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| Vendor: | PRMIA |
|---|---|
| Exam Code: | 8010 |
| Exam Name: | Operational Risk Manager (ORM) Exam |
| Exam Questions: | 241 |
| Last Updated: | February 25, 2026 |
| Related Certifications: | Operational Risk Management |
| Exam Tags: |
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The probability of default of a security during the first year after issuance is 3%, that during the second and third years is 4%, and during the fourth year is 5%. What is the probability that it would not have defaulted at the end of four years from now?
The probability that the security would not default in the next 4 years is equal to the probability of survival at the end of the four years. In other words, =(1 - 3%)*(1 - 4%)*(1 - 4%)*(1 - 5%) = 84.93%. Choice 'd' is the correct answer.
What is the risk horizon period used for credit risk as generally used for economic capital calculations and as required by regulation?
The credit risk horizon for credit VaR is generally one year. Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer.
Financial institutions need to take volatility clustering into account:
1. To avoid taking on an undesirable level of risk
2. To know the right level of capital they need to hold
3. To meet regulatory requirements
4. To account for mean reversion in returns
Volatility clustering leads to levels of current volatility that can be significantly different from long run averages. When volatility is running high, institutions need to shed risk, and when it is running low, they can afford to increase returns by taking on more risk for a given amount of capital. An institution's response to changes in volatility can be either to adjust risk, or capital, or both. Accounting for volatility clustering helps institutions manage their risk and capital and therefore statements I and II are correct.
Regulatory requirements do not require volatility clustering to be taken into account (at least not yet). Therefore statement III is not correct, and neither is IV which is completely unrelated to volatility clustering.
The CDS quote for the bonds of Bank X is 200 bps. Assuming a recovery rate of 40%, calculate the default hazard rate priced in the CDS quote.
Hazard rate x Loss given default = CDS quote. In other words, Hazard rate x (1 - recovery rate) = CDS quote. We can therefore calculate the hazard rate for this problem as 200 bps/(1 - 40%) = 3.33%.
Under the standardized approach to calculating operational risk capital, how many business lines are a bank's activities divided into per Basel II?
In the Standardized Approach, banks' activities are divided into eight business lines: corporate finance, trading & sales, retail banking, commercial banking, payment & settlement, agency services, asset management, and retail brokerage. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
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