PMI CAPM Exam Dumps

Get All Certified Associate in Project Management Exam Questions with Validated Answers

CAPM Pack
Vendor: PMI
Exam Code: CAPM
Exam Name: Certified Associate in Project Management
Exam Questions: 1320
Last Updated: June 26, 2026
Related Certifications: Certified Associate in Project Management
Exam Tags: Project Management Associate Level Assistant Project ManagersProject AdministratorsProject AnalystsProject Coordinators
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Free PMI CAPM Exam Actual Questions

Question No. 1

A subject matter expert (SME) was recently assigned to a project to manage the new compliance requirement. The SME claimed that the activity's prioritization needed to change and the schedule could be cut to mitigate the effect of this new compliance need.

How should the project manager proceed?

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Correct Answer: A

According to the PMBOK Guide, specifically the Perform Integrated Change Control (PICC) process, any change to a project baseline (scope, schedule, or cost) must be formally reviewed and processed.

Why Choice A is correct: The SME is suggesting two significant changes: a change in prioritization (Scope/Resource baseline) and a reduction in the schedule (Schedule baseline). Even though the change is intended to 'mitigate' a compliance need, the Project Manager cannot simply update the plan. They must follow the formal change management plan. This involves:

Assessing the impact of the SME's suggestion on all project constraints.

Documenting the request in the Change Log.

Presenting the change to the Change Control Board (CCB) or the relevant authority for approval or rejection. This ensures that the 'mitigation' doesn't inadvertently introduce new risks or quality issues.

Analysis of other options:

B (Conduct a risk assessment): While assessing risk is a part of analyzing a change request, the question asks how the PM should proceed with the SME's claim. The formal procedure for handling modifications to the project plan is Integrated Change Control.

C (Update the schedule): This is 'gold plating' or bypasses formal governance. A Project Manager should never update a baseline without an approved change request.

D (Manage Stakeholder Engagement): This is a continuous process of communicating and working with stakeholders. While the PM will engage the SME, the specific action required to handle a change to the project's execution logic is Change Control.

In summary, the Project Management Plan defines the 'rules of the game.' When a technical expert suggests a shortcut or a pivot, the Project Manager acts as the guardian of the baselines, ensuring every move is vetted through the Perform Integrated Change Control process.


Question No. 2

Which of the following are outputs of the Define Scope process in Project Scope Management?

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Correct Answer: C

According to the PMBOK Guide, the Define Scope process is the phase where a detailed description of the project and product is developed. It describes the project, service, or result boundaries and acceptance criteria.

Project Scope Statement: This is the primary output. It provides a documented breakdown of the project scope, including major deliverables, assumptions, constraints, and the work that is excluded from the project (out of scope). It serves as the common understanding of the project scope among stakeholders.

Project Documents Updates: During this process, several other documents may be revised as a result of the deeper clarity gained. These typically include:

Assumption Log: New assumptions or constraints may be identified.

Requirements Documentation: Requirements may be refined or prioritized.

Requirements Traceability Matrix: Updated to reflect the refined requirements.

Stakeholder Register: New stakeholders or changes in their requirements might be discovered.

Analysis of other options:

A . Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix: These are the primary outputs of the Collect Requirements process, which precedes Define Scope.

B . Scope management plan and requirements management plan: These are outputs of the Plan Scope Management process. They define how scope will be defined and managed, but they are not the scope definition itself.

D . Scope baseline and project documents updates: The Scope Baseline is the output of the Create WBS process. It consists of the Project Scope Statement, the WBS, and the WBS Dictionary. While the Scope Statement is part of the baseline, the baseline as a formal entity is not finalized until the WBS is complete.

Per PMI standards, the Project Scope Statement is the vital output of the Define Scope process that prevents scope creep and ensures all parties are aligned on what is being delivered.


Question No. 3

A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:

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Correct Answer: D

According to the PMBOK Guide and the Standard for Project Management, the Communications Management Plan is the formal document that defines how project information will be distributed, including the escalation process.

As per PMI standards, while risks are identified in the Risk Register and tracked in a Risk Log, the procedure for moving an unresolved issue or risk up the chain of command belongs to the Communications Management Plan. This plan ensures that stakeholders receive the right information at the right time. Key components of this plan regarding escalation include:

Escalation processes: Clear definitions of the time frames and the names/roles of people (management or sponsors) to whom unresolved issues or risks should be elevated.

Person responsible for communicating the information: Identifying who has the authority to trigger the escalation.

Flowcharts of information: Visual representations of how data and issues move through the organization.

The other options are incorrect based on the following PMI definitions:

Change control plan: (Part of the Change Management Plan) This describes how change requests will be formally authorized and incorporated. It focuses on modifications to baselines, not the hierarchical elevation of unresolved risks.

Stakeholder register: This is a document that identifies stakeholders and their interests/impact. It does not contain procedural paths for risk or issue management.

Risk log: (Often referred to as the Risk Register) This is used to identify, analyze, and plan responses to risks. While it records the status of a risk, it does not typically house the organizational communication policy for escalation.

As per the PMI Lexicon of Project Management Terms, the Communications Management Plan is vital for managing stakeholder expectations and ensuring that critical bottlenecks---such as unresolved risks---are addressed by the appropriate level of leadership through a predefined escalation path.


Question No. 4

A project manager is reporting the project performance as 25 days worth of work completed against 13 days originally planned. What is the schedule variance (SV)?

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Correct Answer: D

In Earned Value Management (EVM), as defined by the PMBOK Guide, the Schedule Variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance expressed as the difference between the earned value and the planned value.

Formula:

$$SV = EV - PV$$

EV (Earned Value): The value of work actually performed expressed in terms of the budget assigned to that work. In this case, it is 25 days worth of work.

PV (Planned Value): The authorized budget assigned to scheduled work. In this case, it is 13 days worth of work.

Calculation:

$$SV = 25 - 13 = 12$$

Analysis of the result:

Positive SV (+12): A positive value indicates that the project is ahead of schedule because the team has completed more work than was originally planned for this point in time.

Negative SV: A negative value would indicate that the project is behind schedule.

Zero SV: Indicates that the project is exactly on schedule.

Analysis of other options:

A (-12): This would occur if the team had only completed 1 day of work against 13 planned ($1 - 13$). It represents a project that is significantly behind schedule.

B (1.15): This does not match any direct EVM calculation for this data. (Note: The Schedule Performance Index (SPI), which is $EV / PV$, would be approximately $1.92$ in this scenario, showing extremely high efficiency).

C (38): This is the sum of the two values ($25 + 13$), which is not a standard project management metric.

By calculating the Schedule Variance, the Project Manager can objectively report to stakeholders that the project is performing better than expected and can use this data to adjust future resource allocations or identify 'lessons learned' regarding the team's high productivity.


Question No. 5

Which three techniques can be estimate costs?

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Correct Answer: D

According to the PMBOK Guide, the Estimate Costs process involves several specific tools and techniques used to develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project work. The three techniques listed in the correct option are foundational to this process:

Expert Judgment: This involves providing insight based upon experience and knowledge from a specific application area, Knowledge Area, discipline, or industry. It is used to determine which combination of estimating techniques to use and how to reconcile differences between them.

Analogous Estimating: This technique uses the values (such as scope, cost, budget, and duration) or measures of scale (such as size, weight, and complexity) from a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project. It is generally less costly and time-consuming than other techniques but also less accurate.

Bottom-up Estimating: This is a method of estimating a component of work. The cost of individual work packages or activities is estimated with the greatest level of specified detail. The detailed cost is then summarized or 'rolled up' to higher levels for subsequent reporting and tracking purposes.

Why other options are incorrect:

Option A, B, and C (Financing): Financing is a tool used in the Determine Budget process, not the Estimate Costs process. It involves acquiring funding for projects.

Option B and C (Cost Aggregation): Cost Aggregation is also a tool used specifically in the Determine Budget process. It involves summing the lower-level cost estimates (work packages) into higher-level components (control accounts) to establish the cost baseline.


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