Oracle 1Z0-931-25 Exam Dumps

Get All Oracle Autonomous Database Cloud 2025 Professional Exam Questions with Validated Answers

1Z0-931-25 Pack
Vendor: Oracle
Exam Code: 1Z0-931-25
Exam Name: Oracle Autonomous Database Cloud 2025 Professional
Exam Questions: 149
Last Updated: May 25, 2026
Related Certifications: Oracle Cloud , Oracle Database
Exam Tags: Professional Level Oracle Database Administrators and Cloud Engineers
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Free Oracle 1Z0-931-25 Exam Actual Questions

Question No. 1

What is a best practice when planning and instituting access controls for your Autonomous Dedicated environment regarding subnets, compartments, and user groups?

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Correct Answer: D

When designing access controls for an Autonomous Dedicated environment, Oracle recommends redundancy and separation for security and manageability:

Correct Answer (D): ''Create at least 2 of each resource'' (subnets, compartments, user groups) is a best practice:

Subnets: Using at least two subnets (e.g., one public, one private) enhances security by segregating traffic and provides failover options if one subnet encounters issues.

Compartments: Multiple compartments allow logical separation (e.g., dev, test, prod), simplifying access control and resource management.

User Groups: At least two groups (e.g., admins, developers) streamline permission assignments and reduce the risk of over-privileging users.

Incorrect Options:

A: OCI allows multiple subnets and compartments; restricting to one limits flexibility and security.

B: There's no such limitation; multiple resources are supported and encouraged.

C: A VCN with only public subnets contradicts security best practices, as private subnets are critical for database isolation.

This approach aligns with Oracle's guidance for secure and scalable deployments.


Question No. 2

Which two statements are true about Recovery Time Objective (RTO) and Recovery Point Objective (RPO) for Autonomous Data Guard? (Choose two.)

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Correct Answer: C, E

Autonomous Data Guard enhances high availability for Autonomous Database. The two true statements are:

RPO is 0 minutes for an automatic failover (C): Recovery Point Objective (RPO) measures potential data loss. With Autonomous Data Guard, the standby database is synchronously replicated with the primary, ensuring zero data loss (RPO = 0) during an automatic failover, as all transactions are mirrored in real-time.

RTO is 2 minutes for an automatic failover (E): Recovery Time Objective (RTO) measures downtime during failover. For Autonomous Data Guard, Oracle specifies an RTO of approximately 2 minutes for automatic failovers, reflecting the time to detect failure and promote the standby to primary.

The incorrect options are:

RTO and RPO are adjustable through the OCI console (A): RTO and RPO are fixed by the Autonomous Data Guard architecture and cannot be manually adjusted via the OCI console.

RPO is adjustable, but RTO is always 5 minutes (B): RPO is not adjustable (it's 0 due to synchronous replication), and RTO is not fixed at 5 minutes; it's typically 2 minutes for automatic failover.

RTO and RPO are 0 minutes for manual failovers (D): Manual failovers (switchovers) have an RTO greater than 0 (typically a few minutes) due to manual initiation, though RPO remains 0 with synchronous replication.

These values ensure minimal disruption and data loss.


Question No. 3

Where are the customer-managed encryption keys stored for Autonomous Database on Dedicated Infrastructure?

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Correct Answer: A

Customer-managed encryption keys enhance security control:

Correct Answer (A): ''In a separate key vault external to the Exadata infrastructure'' refers to OCI Vault (Key Management Service), where keys are securely stored and managed outside the database infrastructure.

Incorrect Options:

B: The wallet secures connections, not encryption keys.

C: Storing keys on Exadata compromises separation of duties.

D: Backups don't store keys; they're encrypted by keys from the vault.

This separation ensures robust key management.


Question No. 4

What predefined user is created when provisioning an Autonomous Database (ADB) instance to which you connect to create other users and grant roles?

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Correct Answer: B

When provisioning an Autonomous Database (ADB) instance, Oracle creates a default administrative user with extensive privileges. The correct user is:

ADMIN (B): The ADMIN user is automatically created during ADB provisioning and serves as the primary administrative account. It has full privileges to manage the database, including creating users, granting roles, and performing administrative tasks (e.g., scaling, backups). For example, after provisioning an ADB via the OCI console, you'd connect as ADMIN using the password you set, then run commands like: CREATE USER analyst1 IDENTIFIED BY 'password'; GRANT CONNECT, RESOURCE TO analyst1;. This user is the entry point for initial configuration and ongoing management, authenticated via the client wallet for secure access (e.g., sqlplus admin/password@adb_high). The ADMIN user is distinct from traditional Oracle users like SYS because ADB's managed nature limits direct system-level access, funneling administration through ADMIN.

The incorrect options are:

SYS (A): In traditional Oracle databases, SYS is the superuser with ultimate control (e.g., owning the data dictionary). In ADB, however, SYS exists but is locked and inaccessible to customers due to the fully managed environment---Oracle manages system-level operations, and users connect as ADMIN instead.

DWDEV (C): There's no predefined DWDEV user in ADB. This might confuse with roles like DWROLE (for Data Warehouse developers), but no such user is created by default.

SCOTT (D): SCOTT is a sample user from older Oracle versions (with tables like EMP and DEPT), not created in ADB. It's irrelevant in this modern, managed context.

The ADMIN user's role ensures customers can manage ADB without needing Oracle's intervention, aligning with its autonomous design.


Question No. 5

Which Database Actions tool is used to get information about the entities in your Oracle Autonomous Database and to also see how changing an object affects other objects?

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Correct Answer: A

Database Actions (formerly SQL Developer Web) offers tools for database management:

Correct Answer (A): The Catalog tool provides a detailed view of database entities (tables, views, schemas) and their metadata, including dependencies via the ''Impact'' tab. It helps assess how changes (e.g., dropping a table) affect related objects.

Incorrect Options:

B: Data Load is for importing data, not analyzing entities or dependencies.

C: JSON is a data format, not a tool; it's supported but irrelevant here.

D: Data Insight is a separate analytics service, not part of Database Actions.

Catalog is essential for metadata exploration and impact analysis.


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