NABP NAPLEX Exam Dumps

Get All North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination Exam Questions with Validated Answers

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Vendor: NABP
Exam Code: NAPLEX
Exam Name: North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination
Exam Questions: 155
Last Updated: January 6, 2026
Related Certifications: North American Pharmacist Licensure
Exam Tags: PharmacistsPharmacy TechniciansClinical Pharmacists
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Free NABP NAPLEX Exam Actual Questions

Question No. 1

If a patient takes 0.5mg of intravenous hydromorphone every 4hrs what would be the equivalent orals total daily dose? Hydromorphone oral to parenteral ratio 7.5:1.5.

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Correct Answer: A

To determine the dose conversion IV to PO, the ratio of PO to IV needs to be determined, this is 7.5 / 1.5 which is 5. This number means that the PO dose is 5 times more than the IV dose to get the same amount of drug into the bloodstream. If the patient is taking 0.5 mg IV then the PO dose would be 0.5 mg multiplied by 5, which is 2.5 mg. Since the patient is taking the medication every 4 hours the patient is receiving 6 doses, 24hrs/4hrs = 6. Since the patient is receiving 2.5 mg every dose and is receiving 6 doses a day, the patient is receiving 15 mg, 2.5 mg multiplied by 6 doses.


Question No. 2

Select the class of Anti-diabetic medication that works in the specified organto prevent hyperglycemi

a. Select all that applies. Fat Tissue (H)

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Correct Answer: E

Thiazolidinediones Sulfonylureas work in beta cells in the pancreas that are still functioning to enhance insulin secretion. Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors stop -glucosidase enzymes in the small intestine and delay digestion and absorption of starch and disaccharides which lowers the levels of glucose after meals. DPP4 blocks the degradation ofGLP-1, GIP, and a variety of other peptides, including brain natriuretic peptide. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists work in various organs of the body. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists enhance glucose homeostasis through: (i) stimulation of insulin secretion; (ii) inhibition of glucagon secretion;

(iii) direct and indirect suppression of endogenous glucose production; (iv) suppression of appetite; (v) enhanced insulin sensitivity secondary to weight loss; (vi) delayed gastric emptying, resulting in decreased postprandial hyperglycaemia. Thiazolidinediones are the only true insulin-sensitising agents, exerting their effects in skeletal and cardiac muscle, liver, and adipose tissue. It ameliorates insulin resistance, decreases visceral fat. Biguanides work in liver, muscle, adipose tissue via activation of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) reduce hepatic glucose production. SGLT2 inhibitors work in the kidneys to inhibit sodium-glucose transport proteins to reabsorb glucose into the blood from muscle cells; overall this helps to improve insulin release from the beta cells of the pancreas.


https://doi.org/10.1093/eurheartj/ehv239

Question No. 3

A 67-year-old female presents to your clinic complaining of fatigue, diarrhea, headaches and a loss of appetite. Upon examination you find that she is having some cognitive difficulty. Laboratory results reveal: MCV: 109fL; Hgb: 9g/dL; MMA and homocystine are both elevated. Shilling test is positive.

What is the next best step in the management of this patient?

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Correct Answer: B

Lifelong Vitamin B12 supplementation. Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) deficiency generally presents in patients as fatigue, diarrhea and headaches but can also be the cause of cognitive changes (difficulty concentrating, even mild dementia). Pernicious anemia is a macrocytic anemia, therefore laboratory findings indicate an increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV), with a decreased hemoglobin. A positive Schilling test indicates that the B12 deficiency is due to a lack of intrinsic factor. Lifelong cyanocobalamin supplementation (either orally or via injections) is needed to treat pernicious anemia. A is incorrect. Folic acid deficiency anemia is another common type of macrocytic anemia. However, cognitive deficits are not typically seen with folic acid deficiency. Furthermore, a schilling test would be negative and the methylmalonic acid (MMA) would be normal, rather than elevated. C is incorrect. Iron deficiency anemia causes a microcytic anemia, characterized by a decreased MCV. D is incorrect. A Coomb's test is used to detect autoimmune hemolysis that may be suspected in patients with normocytic anemia (anemia with an MCV in the normal range). E is incorrect. Corticosteroids and iron supplementation are indicated as treatment in hemolytic anemia.


Question No. 4

What is the active ingredient of the medicine Lyrica?

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Correct Answer: D

Pregabalin is the active ingredient of the medicine Lyrica; a drug used to treat epilepsy, neuropathic pain, fibromyalgia and generalized anxiety disorder (GAD).


Question No. 5

A patient presents in the pharmacy in a delirious state with pinpoint pupils. Which of the following toxicity states does the patient most likely have?

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Correct Answer: B

Signs of opioid overdose include pinpoint pupils, delirious state, nausea / vomiting, respiratory depression and sleepiness or loss of consciousness. Naloxone may be used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose.


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