NABP NAPLEX Exam Dumps

Get All North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination Exam Questions with Validated Answers

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Vendor: NABP
Exam Code: NAPLEX
Exam Name: North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination
Exam Questions: 155
Last Updated: July 9, 2026
Related Certifications: North American Pharmacist Licensure
Exam Tags: PharmacistsPharmacy TechniciansClinical Pharmacists
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Free NABP NAPLEX Exam Actual Questions

Question No. 1

A 67-year-old female presents to your clinic complaining of fatigue, diarrhea, headaches and a loss of appetite. Upon examination you find that she is having some cognitive difficulty. Laboratory results reveal: MCV: 109fL; Hgb: 9g/dL; MMA and homocystine are both elevated. Shilling test is positive.

What is the next best step in the management of this patient?

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Correct Answer: B

Lifelong Vitamin B12 supplementation. Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) deficiency generally presents in patients as fatigue, diarrhea and headaches but can also be the cause of cognitive changes (difficulty concentrating, even mild dementia). Pernicious anemia is a macrocytic anemia, therefore laboratory findings indicate an increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV), with a decreased hemoglobin. A positive Schilling test indicates that the B12 deficiency is due to a lack of intrinsic factor. Lifelong cyanocobalamin supplementation (either orally or via injections) is needed to treat pernicious anemia. A is incorrect. Folic acid deficiency anemia is another common type of macrocytic anemia. However, cognitive deficits are not typically seen with folic acid deficiency. Furthermore, a schilling test would be negative and the methylmalonic acid (MMA) would be normal, rather than elevated. C is incorrect. Iron deficiency anemia causes a microcytic anemia, characterized by a decreased MCV. D is incorrect. A Coomb's test is used to detect autoimmune hemolysis that may be suspected in patients with normocytic anemia (anemia with an MCV in the normal range). E is incorrect. Corticosteroids and iron supplementation are indicated as treatment in hemolytic anemia.


Question No. 2

After talking to the physician you find out her labs. Her labs reveled albumin level of 2.1gm/dL, calcium of 7.8mg/dL, glucose 120mg/dL , sodium 138 mmol/L, phenytoin level of 17.8.

Based on the given data which of the following best interprets phenytoin concentration?

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Correct Answer: B

Corrected phenytoin (mg/L) = Observed phenytoin (mg/L) / (0.2 x albumin [g/dL]) + 0.1 = 17.8 / (0.2 x 2.1) +

0.1 = 17.8 / 0.42 + 0.1 = 42.48mg/L phenytoin level is high. Normal therapeutic range is: 10-20mg/dL


Question No. 3

MT is 47-year-old man who presents to the ER with painful, red, swollen area on his left leg. His temperature is 38.4, respiratory rate 30 and heart rate 95. He has been taking cephalexin day 4 today, as prescribed by his primary care physician. His CMP is normal a CBC shows elevated WBC of 16,000/mm3.

What would be the most appropriate antibiotic/s to initiate on MT empirically?

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Correct Answer: A

This patient is displaying signs of a severe case of cellulitis. Severe cellulitis is defined as having one of the following: failed oral antibiotic treatment, immunocompromised, clinical signs of deeper infection, or meeting the SIRS criteria. Based on this patient's presentation they have failed antibiotic treatment and meet SIRS criteria. For severe cellulitis, IDSA SSTI guidelines recommend using Vancomycin along with Zosyn.


https://academic.oup.com/cid/article/59/2/e10/2895845/Practice-Guidelines-for-the-Diagnosis-and

Question No. 4

Your patient, a 25-year-old G1P0 female at 26 weeks gestation presents due to an abnormal glucose tolerance test. One week prior, she was given 50 g of oral glucose and demonstrate a venous plasma glucose level of 156 mg/dL one hour later.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step of management?

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Correct Answer: B

Gestational diabetes is typically asymptomatic but identified via a 1-hour 50g oral glucose challenge administered at 24--28 weeks of gestation. A venous plasma glucose blood level of > 140 mg/dL is suggestive, and must be confirmed with a 3-hour 100g oral glucose tolerance test. After administration of the 100g glucose challenge, at least two of the following are required for diagnosis: (1) fasting glucose > 95 mg/dL, (2) one-hour glucose >180 mg/dL, (3) two hour glucose >155 mg/dL, and (4) three hour glucose > 140 mg/dL. Choice A --

To diagnose gestational diabetes, a positive 1-hour 50g oral glucose challenge must be followed up by a three-hour 100g oral glucose challenge. The diagnosis is only confirmed after both challenges are completed and the thresholds are met. Choice C -- Following the diagnosis of gestational diabetes, the first step is strict glycemic control (fasting glucose).


Question No. 5

What is the mechanism of action of the active ingredient found in Zyflo?

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Correct Answer: B

Zileuton is the active ingredient found in the medicine Zyflo; a medicine that works as a 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor. As such, zileuton inhibits leukotrienes (LTB4, LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4) formation, and is used for the maintenance treatment of asthma in patients older than the age of 12. In 2 percent of patients, it raises liver enzymes. Sinusitis and nausea are the most common side effects.


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