Exin CITM Exam Dumps

Get All EXIN EPI Certified Information Technology Manager Exam Questions with Validated Answers

CITM Pack
Vendor: Exin
Exam Code: CITM
Exam Name: EXIN EPI Certified Information Technology Manager
Exam Questions: 50
Last Updated: February 24, 2026
Related Certifications: EXIN EPI IT Management
Exam Tags: Professional Level Senior IT professionalsteam leaders
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Free Exin CITM Exam Actual Questions

Question No. 1

During Post Implementation Review (PIR) of changes, it is lately concluded that an unusual high number of changes failed to meet their objectives. What is the most likely cause of this?

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Correct Answer: A

A high failure rate of changes during Post Implementation Review (PIR) in ITIL's change management process suggests a deficiency in the assessment and evaluation of change requests (A). Proper assessment involves analyzing risks, impacts, and feasibility before approving changes. If this step is inadequate (e.g., overlooking conflicts or underestimating impacts), changes are more likely to fail, as they may not align with objectives or be poorly planned.

Insufficient resources (B): May cause delays but is less directly tied to failed objectives compared to poor assessment.

CAB meetings not taking place (C): The CAB reviews changes, but the scenario doesn't indicate meetings are absent; poor assessment can occur even with CAB involvement.

Insufficient budget (D): May limit implementation but is less likely the primary cause of failed objectives.


Question No. 2

Vendor management meetings take place several times per year. What is the main objective for these meetings?

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Correct Answer: C

The main objective of vendor management meetings is to verify if the vendor continues to meet the requirements of the contract, supporting the business processes (C). These meetings, as part of vendor management frameworks, ensure that the vendor's performance aligns with contractual obligations, service level agreements (SLAs), and business needs. They involve reviewing service delivery, compliance, and any issues affecting business processes.

Explore improvement programs (A): A secondary goal, as improvements may arise from performance reviews.

Identify possible price increases (B): Price discussions may occur, but they are not the primary focus.

Discuss improvement programs (D): Similar to A, this is a potential outcome but not the main objective.


Question No. 3

Before the marketing department will decide on a new advertising campaign, it wants to be able to gain more insights into the customer, being able to predict the products customers will purchase in the near future. What is a 'must-have' criterion in terms of the technology the marketing department is interested in?

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Correct Answer: B

To predict future customer purchases, the marketing department requires advanced analytics (B), which involves sophisticated data analysis techniques, such as predictive modeling, machine learning, and data mining. These technologies enable the department to analyze customer behavior, identify patterns, and forecast purchasing trends, supporting targeted advertising campaigns.

Records Management System (RMS) (A): Focuses on managing and storing records, not predictive analysis.

Ad hoc analysis (C): Allows for on-demand, one-off queries but lacks the predictive capabilities of advanced analytics.

Business Intelligence (BI) (D): Provides reporting and historical data analysis but is less focused on predictive modeling compared to advanced analytics.

Advanced analytics aligns with IT strategy goals of leveraging data for competitive advantage, as it supports predictive insights critical for marketing decisions.


Question No. 4

The project brief/project charter is created. Which of the following is not part of it?

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Correct Answer: A

The project charter (or project brief) is a high-level document created during the initiation phase of a project, as defined by PMBOK (Project Management Body of Knowledge). It outlines the project's purpose, objectives, scope, and key elements but does not include detailed planning (A), which occurs during the planning phase after the charter is approved. The charter typically includes:

High-level risks (B): Identifies major risks to provide early awareness.

Summary budget (C): Provides an initial cost estimate for approval.

Quality expectations (D): Defines high-level quality requirements or standards.

Detailed planning, such as creating a detailed Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) or schedule, is part of the project management plan developed later, not the charter.


Question No. 5

Due to technical and operational constraints, the preferred control to lower the risks identified is to outsource part of IT operations to an external vendor. What type of risk treatment is applied here?

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Correct Answer: C

Outsourcing IT operations to an external vendor is a form of risk transfer (C), where the responsibility for managing certain risks (e.g., operational or technical risks) is shifted to the vendor. According to ISO 31000, risk treatment strategies include transferring risk to a third party, often through contracts or outsourcing agreements, where the vendor assumes responsibility for mitigating specific risks.

Sharing (A): Involves distributing risk among multiple parties, not fully transferring it to one.

Retention (B): Means accepting the risk without mitigation, not applicable here.

Modification (D): Refers to changing processes or controls to reduce risk, not outsourcing.


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