CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Dumps

Get All CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Questions with Validated Answers

SY0-701 Pack
Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: SY0-701
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam
Exam Questions: 714
Last Updated: December 13, 2025
Related Certifications: CompTIA Security+
Exam Tags: Cybersecurity Certifications Professional CompTIA Security ArchitectCloud penetration testersand Network security analysts
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Free CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Actual Questions

Question No. 1

Which of the following types of vulnerabilities involves attacking a system to access adjacent hosts?

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Correct Answer: A

VM escape allows an attacker to break out of a virtual machine to access the hypervisor or other adjacent virtual machines on the same host, effectively moving laterally to adjacent systems.

Side loading (B) involves loading malicious code in place of legitimate components. Remote code execution (C) allows running arbitrary code remotely. Resource exhaustion (D) causes denial of service by overusing resources.

VM escape is a known virtualization vulnerability detailed in SY0-7016:Chapter 2CompTIA Security+ Study Guide.


Question No. 2

Which of the following describes the category of data that is most impacted when it is lost?

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Correct Answer: D

Question No. 3

Which of the following best describe why a process would require a two-person integrity security control?

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Correct Answer: C

A two-person integrity security control is implemented to minimize the risk of errors or unauthorized actions. This control ensures that at least two individuals are involved in critical operations, which helps to verify the accuracy of the process and prevents unauthorized users from acting alone. It's a security measure commonly used in sensitive operations, like financial transactions or access to critical systems, to ensure accountability and accuracy.

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Security Operations and Management.


Question No. 4

An enterprise has been experiencing attacks focused on exploiting vulnerabilities in older browser versions with well-known exploits. Which of the following security solutions should be configured to best provide the ability to monitor and block these known signature-based attacks?

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Correct Answer: D

An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a security device that monitors network traffic and blocks or modifies malicious packets based on predefined rules or signatures. An IPS can prevent attacks that exploit known vulnerabilities in older browser versions by detecting and dropping the malicious packets before they reach the target system. An IPS can also perform other functions, such as rate limiting, encryption, or redirection.:CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3: Securing Networks, page 132.


Question No. 5

Which of the following provides the details about the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester?

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Correct Answer: A

Rules of engagement are the detailed guidelines and constraints regarding the execution of information security testing, such as penetration testing. They define the scope, objectives, methods, and boundaries of the test, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the testers and the clients. Rules of engagement help to ensure that the test is conducted in a legal, ethical, and professional manner, and that the results are accurate and reliable. Rules of engagement typically include the following elements:

The type and scope of the test, such as black box, white box, or gray box, and the target systems, networks, applications, or data.

The client contact details and the communication channels for reporting issues, incidents, or emergencies during the test.

The testing team credentials and the authorized tools and techniques that they can use.

The sensitive data handling and encryption requirements, such as how to store, transmit, or dispose of any data obtained during the test.

The status meeting and report schedules, formats, and recipients, as well as the confidentiality and non-disclosure agreements for the test results.

The timeline and duration of the test, and the hours of operation and testing windows.

The professional and ethical behavior expectations for the testers, such as avoiding unnecessary damage, disruption, or disclosure of information.

Supply chain analysis, right to audit clause, and due diligence are not related to the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester. Supply chain analysis is the process of evaluating the security and risk posture of the suppliers and partners in a business network. Right to audit clause is a provision in a contract that gives one party the right to audit another party to verify their compliance with the contract terms and conditions. Due diligence is the process of identifying and addressing the cyber risks that a potential vendor or partner brings to an organization.

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