CompTIA CS0-003 Exam Dumps

Get All CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Exam Questions with Validated Answers

CS0-003 Pack
Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: CS0-003
Exam Name: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Exam
Exam Questions: 428
Last Updated: November 20, 2025
Related Certifications: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst
Exam Tags: Cybersecurity certifications Intermediate CompTIA incident response analystCompTIA security operations center (SOC) analystCompTIA cyber professional
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Free CompTIA CS0-003 Exam Actual Questions

Question No. 1

Which of the following best describes the process of requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame?

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Correct Answer: A

An SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a contract or agreement between a service provider and a customer that defines the expected level of service, performance, quality, and availability of the service. An SLA also specifies the responsibilities, obligations, and penalties for both parties in case of non-compliance or breach of the agreement. An SLA can help organizations to ensure that their security services are delivered in a timely and effective manner, and that any security incidents or vulnerabilities are addressed and resolved within a specified time frame.An SLA can also help to establish clear communication, expectations, and accountability between the service provider and the customer12

An MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a document that expresses a mutual agreement or understanding between two or more parties on a common goal or objective. An MOU is not legally binding, but it can serve as a basis for future cooperation or collaboration. An MOU may not be suitable for requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame, as it does not have the same level of enforceability, specificity, or measurability as an SLA.

Best-effort patching is an informal and ad hoc approach to applying security patches or updates to systems or software. Best-effort patching does not follow any defined process, policy, or schedule, and relies on the availability and discretion of the system administrators or users. Best-effort patching may not be effective or efficient for requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame, as it does not guarantee that the patches are applied correctly, consistently, or promptly. Best-effort patching may also introduce new risks or vulnerabilities due to human error, compatibility issues, or lack of testing.

Organizational governance is the framework of rules, policies, procedures, and processes that guide and direct the activities and decisions of an organization. Organizational governance can help to establish the roles, responsibilities, and accountabilities of different stakeholders within the organization, as well as the goals, values, and principles that shape the organizational culture and behavior. Organizational governance can also help to ensure compliance with internal and external standards, regulations, and laws. Organizational governance may not be sufficient for requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame, as it does not specify the details or metrics of the service delivery or performance. Organizational governance may also vary depending on the size, structure, and nature of the organization.


Question No. 2

A SIEM alert is triggered based on execution of a suspicious one-liner on two workstations in the organization's environment. An analyst views the details of these events below:

Which of the following statements best describes the intent of the attacker, based on this one-liner?

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Correct Answer: B

The one-liner script is utilizing JavaScript to execute a PowerShell command that downloads and runs a script from an external source, indicating the use of custom malware to download an additional script.Reference:CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 156.


Question No. 3

Which of the following risk management decisions should be considered after evaluating all other options?

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Correct Answer: B

Risk Acceptance means acknowledging a risk and choosing not to take further action because the cost of mitigation may outweigh the benefits.

It is the last resort when:

The risk is low impact or unlikely to occur.

Other options (mitigation, transfer, avoidance) are not feasible.

Why Not Other Options?

A (Transfer) Moving risk to a third party (e.g., insurance).

C (Mitigation) Implementing security controls to reduce risk.

D (Avoidance) Eliminating the risk entirely (e.g., discontinuing a service).


Question No. 4

A security analyst is performing vulnerability scans on the network. The analyst installs a scanner appliance, configures the subnets to scan, and begins the scan of the network. Which of the following

would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration?

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Correct Answer: B

Registry key values would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration, as the scanner appliance would not have access to the Windows Registry of the scanned systems. The Windows Registry is a database that stores configuration settings and options for the operating system and installed applications. To scan the Registry, the scanner would need to have credentials to log in to the systems and run a local agent or script. The other items would not be missing from the scan, as they can be detected by the scanner appliance without credentials. Operating system version can be identified by analyzing service banners or fingerprinting techniques. Open ports can be discovered by performing a port scan or sending probes to common ports. IP address can be obtained by resolving the hostname or using network discovery tools. https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1112/


Question No. 5

During a training exercise, a security analyst must determine the vulnerabilities to prioritize. The analyst reviews the following vulnerability scan output:

Which of the following issues should the analyst address first?

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Correct Answer: A

Allowing anonymous read access to /etc/passwd is a critical vulnerability because it can expose user account details, aiding attackers in password cracking and privilege escalation.

Option B (Anonymous FTP access) is a risk, but /etc/passwd exposure is more critical as it directly affects user authentication.

Option C (Defender updates disabled) is important, but it does not present an immediate attack vector like credential exposure.

Option D (less escape exploit) is significant, but it requires user interaction, making it less immediate than a global credential leak.

Thus, A is the correct answer, as it represents an immediate, high-impact security risk.


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