Cisco 300-745 Exam Dumps

Get All Designing Cisco Security Infrastructure Exam Questions with Validated Answers

300-745 Pack
Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-745
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Security Infrastructure
Exam Questions: 58
Last Updated: July 13, 2026
Related Certifications: Cisco Certified Network Professional, Cisco Certified Network Professional Security
Exam Tags: Security
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Free Cisco 300-745 Exam Actual Questions

Question No. 1

A restaurant distribution center recently suffered a password spray attack targeting the Cisco Secure Firepower Threat Defense VPN headend. The attack attempts to gain unauthorized access by trying common passwords across many accounts. The attack poses a significant security threat to the organization's remote access infrastructure. To enhance the security of the VPN setup and minimize the risk of similar attacks in the future, the IT security team must implement effective mitigation measures. Which technique effectively reduces the risk of this type of attack?

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Correct Answer: D

In the context of Designing Cisco Security Infrastructure, protecting Remote Access VPN (RAVPN) against brute-force and password spray attacks is a critical objective. On Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) and Adaptive Security Appliance (ASA) platforms, the DefaultWEBVPNGroup and DefaultRAGroup are the landing points for any connection request that does not specify a valid Group Alias or Group URL. Attackers frequently target these default profiles because they are often left with 'None' as the authentication method, allowing the attacker to probe for valid usernames without immediate rejection.

By selecting Option D, the security designer ensures that any attempt to access the VPN via these default profiles requires valid AAA credentials. According to Cisco's hardened design guides, it is best practice to point these default profiles to a 'sinkhole' AAA server or a local database with no users. This forces the password spray attack to fail at the initial authentication phase before any sensitive information is leaked or unauthorized access is granted. While Option A (ACLs) provides a temporary fix, it is ineffective against distributed attacks using rotating IP addresses. Option B (Disabling aliases) is a good obfuscation technique but doesn't stop an attacker from hitting the default profile. Option D provides a structural mitigation that aligns with the Cisco SAFE architectural principle of reducing the attack surface by securing every possible entry vector into the private infrastructure.


Question No. 2

In preparation for an upcoming security audit, a metal production company decided to enhance the security of container-based services running in a Kubernetes environment. The company wants to ensure that all communications between applications and services are encrypted. The administrator plans to implement mTLS service between application and services to secure the data exchanges. Given the need to manage encryption at scale and maintain efficient communication across the cluster, which network transport technology must be employed?

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Correct Answer: D

In modern cloud-native architectures, managing security for hundreds of microservices manually is unfeasible. To implement mutual TLS (mTLS) at scale within a Kubernetes cluster, a Service Mesh (such as Istio or Cisco Service Mesh Manager) is the architectural solution of choice. A service mesh provides a dedicated infrastructure layer for handling service-to-service communication without requiring changes to the application code itself.

The service mesh operates by deploying a 'sidecar' proxy alongside every service instance. These proxies handle the heavy lifting of identity verification, certificate rotation, and the establishment of encrypted tunnels. This ensures that every data exchange is encrypted and that services only communicate with authenticated peers. While an Ingress Controller (Option A) manages traffic entering the cluster and Load Balancing (Option B) distributes traffic, neither provides the granular, internal encryption framework required for pod-to-pod mTLS. Kubernetes Network Policies (Option C) act as a distributed firewall to allow or deny traffic based on IP/Port but do not handle encryption or cryptographic identity. By choosing a Service Mesh, the company satisfies the audit requirement for end-to-end encryption and pervasive visibility into the application's communication flow, aligning with Cisco's design principles for secure, scalable microservices.

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Question No. 3

Which tool is used to collect, analyze, and visualize logs from network devices, endpoints, and other sources in an enterprise?

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Correct Answer: D

In the architectural design of a modern Security Operations Center (SOC), visibility is paramount. Splunk is a leading Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) and log management platform used to aggregate data from disparate sources across the enterprise. According to the Cisco SDSI v1.0 objectives, specifically within the 'Risk, Events, and Requirements' domain, a central repository for telemetry is essential for incident response and threat hunting.

Splunk collects logs, metrics, and other data from network devices (firewalls, switches, routers), endpoints (laptops, servers), and cloud applications. It then indexes this data, allowing security analysts to perform complex searches, create visualizations, and build dashboards that provide a real-time view of the organization's security posture.

While Cisco offers native tools like Cisco Secure Cloud Analytics or Cloud Observability (Option B) for specific cloud and application performance monitoring, Splunk serves as the broader 'single pane of glass' for the entire infrastructure. Cisco Email Security Appliance (Option A) and Cisco Web Security Appliance (Option C) are specialized security engines that generate logs but do not function as the overarching collection and analysis platform for the entire enterprise. By integrating Cisco security products with Splunk, organizations can correlate events---such as a blocked web request from a WSA and a malware alert from a Secure Endpoint---to identify a coordinated attack, fulfilling the Cisco SAFE requirement for pervasive visibility.

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Question No. 4

An administrator at a large university wants to ensure that the new employees have the right level of access when they are onboarded. The administrator asked the team to configure the cloud environment and ensure that new employees have the appropriate access based on their roles and responsibilities. Which technique must be recommended to ensure the right level of access?

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Correct Answer: A

In a modern cloud and campus environment, managing the lifecycle of an identity is the cornerstone of a secure architecture. Identity and Access Management (IAM) is the comprehensive framework of policies and technologies that ensures the right individuals have the appropriate access to technology resources. According to the Cisco SDSI objectives, IAM is the primary mechanism used to transition from manual, error-prone onboarding to a policy-driven approach based on roles and responsibilities.

IAM solutions allow administrators to define digital identities and associate them with specific roles (Role-Based Access Control). When a new employee is onboarded, the IAM system automatically provisions access to the necessary cloud applications and data based on their department or job function. This ensures the principle of least privilege is maintained from day one. While Security Groups (Option B) and Network Access Control Lists (ACLs) (Option D) are important technical controls for filtering traffic at the network layer, they do not manage the identity lifecycle or the complex mapping of users to application permissions. A VPN (Option C) provides a secure tunnel for remote access but does not define what a user can do once they are inside the network. IAM provides the central control plane for identity-centric security, which is essential for a large university environment with high user turnover and diverse access requirements.

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Question No. 5

Which financial reporting regulatory framework must a publicly traded company doing business in the US comply with?

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Correct Answer: B

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (SOX) is a mandatory federal law that all publicly traded companies in the United States must comply with to ensure the accuracy and reliability of their corporate financial reporting. Within the Cisco Security Infrastructure (300-745 SDSI) framework, SOX is a critical driver for designing secure architectures, particularly regarding access control, data integrity, and auditing. Sections 302 and 404 of the act are of particular importance to IT security teams, as they mandate that corporate officers certify the effectiveness of internal controls over financial reporting.

To satisfy SOX requirements, a security designer must implement robust logging and monitoring to ensure that financial data cannot be altered without authorization. Technologies such as Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) for role-based access control and Cisco XDR for centralized visibility are often utilized to provide the necessary audit trails. Unlike HIPAA (Option A), which focuses on protected health information, or FedRAMP (Option D), which applies to cloud service providers for the federal government, SOX is a broad financial regulatory requirement. While SOC (Option C) reports (such as SOC 2) are independent auditing standards often requested by businesses to verify service provider controls, they are not the federal law itself. Therefore, SOX remains the primary regulatory framework governing the security and integrity of financial reporting systems for public entities in the U.S.


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