AGA GFMC Exam Dumps

Get All Examination 3: Governmental Financial Management and Control (GFMC) Exam Questions with Validated Answers

GFMC Pack
Vendor: AGA
Exam Code: GFMC
Exam Name: Examination 3: Governmental Financial Management and Control (GFMC)
Exam Questions: 115
Last Updated: April 7, 2026
Related Certifications: Certified Government Financial Manager
Exam Tags: AGA Financial Analysis Professional Level Government financial managers and accountants
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Free AGA GFMC Exam Actual Questions

Question No. 1

Using Benford Digital Analysis, an auditor can identify potential fraud when

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Correct Answer: A

Benford's Law and Fraud Detection:

Benford's Law is a statistical principle that predicts the frequency of leading digits in naturally occurring datasets.

Deviations from the expected distribution (e.g., a higher-than-expected frequency of a specific leading digit) can indicate manipulation or fraud.

For example, if too many payments start with the number '3,' it suggests potential tampering.

Explanation of Answer Choices:

A . A higher-than-expected number of payment amounts to one vendor start with the number three: Correct. This aligns with how Benford's Law is used to detect anomalies in numerical data.

B . A large number of contracts are awarded to one vendor: While concerning, this is not related to Benford's Law.

C . A large contract is awarded to the director's close relative: This indicates a conflict of interest but is unrelated to Benford's Law.

D . An employee receives kickbacks from real estate developers: This is fraud but cannot be identified using Benford's Law.


Association of Certified Fraud Examiners (ACFE), Fraud Detection Using Benford's Law.

GAO, Fraud Risk Management Framework.

Question No. 2

An employee is set to receive a lumpsum payment of $500,000 in ten years. The agency uses an opportunity rate of 12% for its investments. If inflation is 3%, how much must the agency invest today to cover the future lumpsum payment?

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Correct Answer: A

What Are We Solving For?

We are determining the present value (PV) of a $500,000 lump sum payment to be received in 10 years, using an opportunity rate of 12%. Inflation is not relevant here because the opportunity rate already reflects the expected return, including inflation adjustments.

Formula for Present Value:

The present value (PV) is calculated using the formula:

PV=FV(1+r)nPV = \frac{FV}{(1 + r)^n}PV=(1+r)nFV

Where:

FVFVFV = Future Value = $500,000

rrr = Opportunity rate = 12% or 0.12

nnn = Number of years = 10

Calculation:

PV=500,000(1+0.12)10PV = \frac{500,000}{(1 + 0.12)^{10}}PV=(1+0.12)10500,000 PV=500,000(1.12)10PV = \frac{500,000}{(1.12)^{10}}PV=(1.12)10500,000 PV=500,0003.10585PV = \frac{500,000}{3.10585}PV=3.10585500,000 PV160,986PV 160,986PV160,986

Why Inflation Is Not Included:

The opportunity rate already incorporates the expected inflation. Using it ensures the PV reflects the real purchasing power of the future lump sum payment.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B . $186,023, C. $440,000, D. $485,000: These values result from incorrect calculations or the misuse of inflation in the formula.

Reference and Documents:

GAO Financial Analysis Guide: Recommends using present value calculations with opportunity rates for investment decision-making.

AICPA Financial Management Guide: Provides detailed examples of calculating present value for lump sum payments.


Question No. 3

Which of the following includes the aggregate level and types of risks that the organization is willing to assume in

order to achieve its Strategic objectives?

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Correct Answer: C

What Is a Risk Profile?

A risk profile represents the aggregate level and types of risks that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its strategic objectives. It aligns with the organization's risk appetite and tolerance and helps prioritize and manage risks effectively.

This profile typically includes key risks, their likelihood, and potential impact, as well as how those risks align with the organization's mission and strategy.

Why Is Risk Profile the Correct Answer?

The risk profile provides an enterprise-wide view of risks and their potential influence on achieving strategic goals. It aggregates risks across all levels of the organization and ensures that management considers them when making decisions.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A . Risk Register: While a risk register includes detailed descriptions of individual risks, it does not aggregate risk levels or types across the organization.

B . Risk and Control Evaluation Matrix: This tool evaluates specific risks and controls but does not capture the organization's overall risk appetite or profile.

D . Risk and Control Assessment Tool: This is a generic tool for assessing risks and controls, not for aggregating the overall risk picture.

Reference and Documents:

OMB Circular A-123: Specifies the need for agencies to maintain a risk profile as part of enterprise risk management.

COSO ERM Framework (2017): Defines a risk profile as central to managing risks in alignment with strategic objectives.


Question No. 4

Business process re-engineering typically addresses all of the following EXCEPT the

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Correct Answer: C

Business Process Re-Engineering (BPR):

BPR focuses on redesigning key processes to achieve dramatic improvements in efficiency, effectiveness, and performance.

It typically involves addressing technical systems, human factors, and process workflows, but it does not involve redefining the organization's mission, which is a strategic activity outside the scope of BPR.

Explanation of Answer Choices:

A . Key processes: Incorrect. Key processes are the primary focus of BPR.

B . Human environment: Incorrect. BPR often addresses human factors, such as roles and responsibilities.

C . Organizational mission: Correct. The mission is a strategic element and not typically redefined as part of process re-engineering.

D . Technical environment: Incorrect. BPR often involves rethinking technical systems and workflows.


Hammer & Champy, Reengineering the Corporation: A Manifesto for Business Revolution.

GAO, Business Process Re-Engineering for Government Efficiency.

Question No. 5

Efficient inventory management will result in

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Correct Answer: C

What Is Efficient Inventory Management?

Efficient inventory management ensures that an organization has the right amount of inventory at the right time to meet operational needs without overstocking or understocking.

Proper inventory management minimizes disruptions to operations, including work stoppages due to lack of necessary materials or supplies.

Why Is Fewer Instances of Work Stoppage the Correct Answer?

Efficient inventory management ensures that required inventory is available when needed, reducing the risk of work delays or stoppages caused by inventory shortages.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A . A low inventory turnover ratio: A low turnover ratio often indicates overstocking or slow-moving inventory, which is not a sign of efficiency.

B . High write-offs of obsolete inventory: Efficient management reduces obsolete inventory, leading to fewer write-offs, not more.

D . High total asset turnover: While efficient inventory management may contribute to overall asset efficiency, it does not directly result in a high total asset turnover ratio.

Reference and Documents:

GAO Guide on Inventory Management: Emphasizes the role of inventory management in avoiding operational disruptions.

Best Practices for Inventory Management (AGA): Highlights reduced work stoppages as a key benefit of effective inventory control.


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